For the prohibition regarding moral turpitude, the law requires that the person be "convicted by final judgment" which Marcos was not

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Since he was not "convicted by final judgment" and therefore remains innocent in court of the charges against him, he therefore does not fall under this prohibition. This is from the legal perspective. Whether he really committed moral turpitude or not, that is a different topic.

(Hmmm...how about this? http://www.nytimes.com/1993/09/24/world/marcos-convicted-of-graft-in-manila.html)


dsalunga

Posted 7 years ago | Edited 7 years ago